1099 and personal guarantee - exception under CFR
This issue was litigated in the past with one court agreeing with your
analysis. The IRS disagrees.
Income is defined in IRC 61. #12 says, "(12) Income from discharge of
indebtedness;"
The Owner owes this money, the obligation is forgiven, why is it not
income? Your argument, and it is a good one, is that the Owner never
received money. The IRS's position is, where does it say owner had to
receive the benefit/money? The definition of income is meant to be broad,
it encompasses a lot of things.
Assuming it is income, then income tax must be assessed unless there is an
exception. Section 108 contains those exceptions. Subsection (e)(2) fits
the bill.
The analysis is different but the result is the same.
Sincerely,
*Michael Avanesian, Esq. *
Avanesian Law Firm
101 N. Brand Blvd. PH 1920
Glendale, CA 91203
Tel: 818.276.2477 | Fax: 818.208.4550
*Confidentiality**: *This electronic transmission and its contents are
legally privileged and confidential information and intended solely for the
use of the addressee. If the reader of this message is not the intended
recipient, you are hereby notified that any dissemination, distribution,
copying or other use of this message and its contents is strictly
prohibited. If you have received this transmission in error, please reply
to us immediately and delete this message from your directory.
*IRS Circular 230 Disclosure:* To ensure compliance with requirements
imposed by the IRS, please be advised that any U.S. federal tax advice
contained in this communication (including any attachments) is not intended
or written to be used or relied upon, and cannot be used or relied upon,
for the purpose of (i) avoiding penalties under the Internal Revenue Code,
or (ii) promoting, marketing or recommending to another party any
transaction or matter addressed herein.
On Tue, Nov 3, 2015 at 12:19 PM, sam@southbaybk.com [cdcbaa] wrote:
>
>
> Just to demonstrate my total ignorance - I've always just assumed that,
> since the guarantor by definition did not receive the proceeds of the loan,
> the cancellation of the indebtedness likewise would not result in income to
> the guarantor. Is that too simple of an analysis?
>
>
This issue was litigated in the past with one court agreeing with your analysis. The IRS disagrees.Income is defined in IRC 61. #12 says, "(12) Income from discharge of indebtedness;"The Owner owes this money, the obligation is forgiven, why is it not income? Your argument, and it is a good one, is that the Owner never received money. The IRS's position is, where does it say owner had to receive the benefit/money? The definition of income is meant to be broad, it encompasses a lot of things.Assuming it is income, then income tax must be assessed unless there is an exception. Section 108 contains those exceptions. Subsection (e)(2) fits the bill.The analysis is different but the result is the same.Sincerely,Michael Avanesian, Esq.
The post was migrated from Yahoo.