Client prospect has premarital debt and over the means
Posted: Wed Aug 01, 2012 7:01 pm
Is there a reason why the portion of the non-filing husband's income that
does not go toward payment of household expenses would not be deducted from
the means test using the marital deduction?
If this is a dumb question considering community property issues, please be
kind to this newbie from the land of equitable distribution.
Jay S. Fleischman, Esq.
Shaev & Fleischman, LLP
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Is there a reason why the portion of the non-filing husband's income that does not go toward payment of household expenses would not be deducted from the means test using the marital deduction?If this is a dumb question considering community property issues, please be kind to this newbie from the land of equitable distribution.
-------------Jay S. Fleischman, Esq.Shaev & Fleischman, LLP
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