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Just a thought

Posted: Mon Jun 21, 2010 1:45 pm
by Yahoo Bot

Someone said on Saturday that Judge EC has "no authority" for stripping a
second lien when it's not current. If Smith treats a wholly unsecured 2nd
as unsecured for jurisdictional purposes, why shouldn't it be treated as
unsecured for other purposes, as well? There is no authority that says
payments to unsecured creditors must be on-time per the contract. Hale
Someone said on
Saturday that Judge EC has "no authority" for stripping a second lien when it's
not current. If Smith treats a wholly unsecured 2nd as unsecured
for jurisdictional purposes, why shouldn't it be treated as unsecured for other
purposes, as well? There is no authority that says payments to unsecured
creditors must be on-time per the contract.
Hale

The post was migrated from Yahoo.