I am not sure that you are going to find a definitive answer.
My position (and understanding) - which is the same as a FCRA attorney that
I have spoken to regarding this matter - is that a credit report is a
reflection of actions taken on a consumer's personal liability - not actions
taken on security. This is why a mortgage lender can refuse to report
positive payment history after BK when a debtor does not reaffirm.
If someone's personal liability on a particular debt is being wiped out via
bankruptcy, then the credit report should not say anything except
"discharged in bankruptcy", "included in bankruptcy", or other similar
language - and indicate the balance owed as zero.
If a CRA is reporting a mortgage included in bankruptcy as being
"foreclosed" when the bankruptcy was filed before the foreclosure, that is
erroneous in my opinion.
At that point, it is the bankruptcy discharge that wiped out the debtor's
liability on the mortgage - not the foreclosure - and thus whatever happened
to the collateral after the debtor is no longer personally liability for it
via bankruptcy is irrelevant information that should not be included on a
consumer liability report.
This is true, in my opinion, even for the "public records" section - since
the debtor is not obligated to pay, personally, at the time of foreclosure.
Thus, the foreclosure sale really doesn't have anything to do with them at
that point.
This is just my two cents from having looked into this issue before - and
speaking to a FCRA attorney. Unfortunately, I wasn't able to find anything
definitive. I suppose it would have to be litigated. If anyone has
anything more definitive, I would like to hear about it.
Donny Brand
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Brand | Burris
3836 E. Anaheim St.
Long Beach, CA 90804
562.438.7500 T
562.438.8500 F
www.brandburris.com
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