It's not 100% settled, but the vast majority of opinion--plus common
sense--concludes that income taxes are non-consumer. They are a debt
derived from working (i.e. business) and not in purchasing goods.
If the debts are primarily non-consumer, a challenge cannot be made under
707(b) or any of its subsections. However, 707(a) is always available and
there are some recent cases (sorry don't have the cites handy) showing how
"for cause" is interpreted. Essentially, if you're talking about a surplus
on I&J, it would need to be a significant enough one to warrant cause, and
that usually means able to pay more than 50% of the total debt over 60
months, but there's no bright line rule.
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To:
Sent: Tuesday, March 18, 2008 10:30 AM
Subject: [cdcbaa] Are Taxes "Consumer" Debt
>I think this was discussed some months ago, but I could not find it in
> archives.
>
> Prospective debtor is a dentist. His two biggest debts are a lease on
> dental equipment (deficiency, clearly not consumer) and income taxes,
> incurred individually while running his practice as a dba. Are the
> income taxes "consumer debt"?
>
> Assuming that his case is not "primarily consumer" and per 707(b)(1)
> there is no means test, do I still face a challenge under 707(b)(3)
> (i.e. "totality of the circumstances")? There is curious language in
> 707(b)(3): "In considering UNDER PARAGRAPH [707(b)(1)] whether the
> granting of relief would be an abuse....[totality of
> circumstances]..." Since (b)(1) is limited to "primarily consumer"
> debtors, it seems the statute has no provision to allow for a dismissal
> challenge under ANY provision of 707 other than 707(a), (i.e.
> unreasonable delay, non-payment of fees, failure to file schedules).
>
> Anyone aware of any cases that support or debunk my reading of this?
> Thanks for any input.
>
>
> ------------------------------------
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