royalties
Posted: Wed Jul 07, 2004 10:47 am
If the debtor has the right on the petition date to receive $,
no matter how contingent, the right belongs to the estate. Where
the question is unclear is the right to receive royalties for stuff
created post-petition. I'm not sure that can be sold (assigned) per
Section 365. The right to receive royalties for something not yet
written sounds like a simple executory contract which possibly
cannot be assigned. The right to royalties for something created
pre-petition is something the trustee will definitely sell if
someone will write him a check for a big enough number to meet his
threshold for administering an estate. Jon
> thanks for the clarification. maybe the way i said it caused
confusion because i do
> understand the difference.
>
> Patricia Depew wrote:
> Vicki, I am merely pointing out the structure of royalties as
there seems to be some confusion. I have not researched the issue
as to post petition royalties in this context.
> -----Original Message-----
> Sent: Tuesday, July 06, 2004 8:16 AM
> To: cdcbaa@yahoogroups.com
> Subject: RE: [cdcbaa] royalties
>
>
> patricia,
> if i'm understanding you right, you're saying because the sales
would be post-petition, the royualties generated from those works
would not belong to the estate and the trustee would have no right
to them?
> thanks, vicki
>
> Patricia Depew wrote:
> I think there may be a confusion as to royalties and advances.
Royalties are residual payments. A royality is a contractually set
percentage of profit derived from sales of a product tht is paid to
the contracting party for the life of the sales of the product. In
short, the work on the product is complete and the product has been
distributed and sold. So, the contract would be pre petition, the
work would have been completed pre petition and the sales that
generate the royalties are post petition.
>
>
> Sent: Saturday, July 03, 2004 4:50 PM
> To: cdcbaa@yahoogroups.com
> Subject: RE: [cdcbaa] royalties
>
>
> Why focus on the issue of whether the contingent obligation is, or
is not dischargeable? The client intends to perform UNLESS the
trustee intervenes and asserts an interest. By the way, it is
virtually certain that the obligation would be discharged even
though it is contingent. Sorry, but I do not understand your last
question.
>
>
> David A. Tilem
> Certified Bankruptcy Specialist*
> Law Offices of David A. Tilem
> 500 N. Brand Blvd., #460, Glendale, CA 91203
> Tel: 818-507-6000 Fax: 818-507-6800
>
> * Personal & small business bankruptcy specialist cert. by State
Bar of CA Bd of Legal Specialization.
> Business bankruptcy specialist cert. by Amer. Bd. of
Certification
>
>
>
>
> -----Original Message-----
> Sent: Wednesday, June 30, 2004 9:49 PM
> To: cdcbaa@yahoogroups.com
> Subject: RE: [cdcbaa] royalties
>
>
> david,
> the bulk of the work would be done post petition filing. since
the contingent obligation to repay the advance doens't arise until
and unless the debtor doesn't fulfill the contract(s), is it
appropriate to discharge the potential obligation?
> if he doesn't, because he will likely illustrate future books
w/the same publishing houses, would it be considered a fraud to not
discharge?
> thanks a lot, vicki
>
> "David A. Tilem" wrote:
>
>
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